|
1
|
sulphonamide
is sterilised by
a.hot
air ovan b. moist heat
sterilisation c. tyndallisation d. gamma rays
|
a
|
|
2
|
which
of the following is used for the extraction of antibiotic
a.abc
extractor b. rotary extractor c.
podbielnaik extractor
d.
whitle extractor
|
c
|
|
3
|
which
of the following is the precursor of penicillin
a.l-tryptophan b. phenyl acetic acid c. tyrosine d.
l- dopa
|
b
|
|
4
|
which
of the following technique is used for purification of streptomycin
a.ion
exchange b. reverse osmosis c.
both a and b d. none
|
a
|
|
5
|
name
the acidic drug
a.novobiocin b. erythromycin c. streptomycin d.
none of the above
|
c
|
|
6
|
murein
content in
a.70-80%
in gram +ve b. 70-80% in gram
-ve
c.
10-20% in gram +ve d. none of these
|
a
|
|
7
|
teichoic
acid is present in
a.gram
+ve b. gram –ve c. brucellosis d. all of these
|
a
|
|
8
|
endotoxin
is produced by
a.lysozyme b. gram +ve c. gram –ve d. all of these
|
c
|
|
9
|
toxicity
of endotoxin is due to
a.lipid
a b. lipid b
c. lipid o d. none of these
|
a
|
|
10
|
structural
component which is unique to gram –ve
(of outer membrane) is
a.polysaccharide b. lipopolysaccharide c.glycopolysaccharide
d.mycolic
acid
|
b
|
|
11
|
which
of the following is gram –ve bacteria
a.bacillus
anthracis b.clostridium tetani
c.staphylococcus
aureus d.salmonella
typhi
|
d
|
|
12
|
which
of the following is gram +ve bacteria
a.vibrio
cholera
b.e. coli
c.cornybacterium
diphtheria d. neisseria
gonorrhoeae
|
c
|
|
13
|
dust
borne infection is
a.diphtheria b. typhoid c. both of these d.none of these
|
d
|
|
14
|
hyaluronidase(increase
the absorption) is given with
a.i.m.
injection b. s/c injection c. i.v injection d. all of these
|
b
|
|
15
|
name
the dna containing virus
a.influenza b. small pox c. measles
d. poliomyelitis
|
b
|
|
16
|
heat
labile antibody
a.igg b.iga c. igd
d. ige
|
d
|
|
17
|
which
antibody has high molecular weight
a.igm b.ige
c.iga d.igd
|
a
|
|
18
|
antibody
present in milk, saliva, mucus(secretory antibody)
a.igm b.ige
c.iga d.igd
|
c
|
|
19
|
name
the antibody which mediates type i hypersensitivity
a.igm b.ige
c.iga d.igd
|
b
|
|
20
|
solution
which cause haemolysis
a.hypotonic b.hypertonic c.isotonic d. none of these
|
a
|
|
21
|
intraspinal
injection should be
a.isotonoic b. hypertonic c. hypotonic d. none of these
|
a
|
|
22
|
which
of the following is the most common sensitivity test for antimicrobial agents
a.disc
diffusion b.immuno diffusion c.oudin procedure
d.ouchterlony
procedure
|
a
|
|
23
|
drug
of choice in treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis is
a.carbenicillin b.rifampicin c.isoniazid d.pyrazinamide
|
d
|
|
24
|
antiviral
activity of zidovudine is antagonised by
a.thymidine b.ribavirin c.both of these d.none of these
|
|
|
25
|
zidovudine
resistant cases can be treated with
a.acyclovir b.ribavirin c.dideoxycytidine d.none of the above
|
c
|
|
26
|
neuropathy
is caused by
a.ethambutol b.isoniazid c.pyrazinamide d.none
|
b
|
|
27
|
commercial
source of penicillinase is
a.bacillus
subtilis b.bacillus
cereus
c.carcina
lutea d.all of
these
|
b
|
|
28
|
most
serious side effect of penicillin therapyis
a.8th
cranial nerve damage b.renal
damage
c.fatty
liver
d.anaphylactic shock
|
d
|
|
29
|
absorption
of tetracycline is enhanced by
a.glucosamine b.phosphate c.citric acid d.all of these
|
d
|
|
30
|
emetine
dihydrochloride is used in treatment of
a.pinworm
infestations b.bacillary
dysentry
c.roundworm
infestations d.extraintestinal
amoebiasis
|
d
|
|
31
|
which
of the following agent active against microorganism resistant to gentamicin
a.streptomycin b.kanamycin c.amikacin d.tobramycin
|
c
|
|
32
|
antimalarial
drug active against chloroquine resistant p. falciparum
a.pyrimethamine b.primaquine c.mefloquine d.quinine
|
d
|
|
33
|
which
of the following is an autoimmune disease
a.graves
disease b.rheumatoid
arthritis
c.ulcerative
colitis d.all of these
|
d
|
|
34
|
which
of the following is true about antibiotics
a.they
are produced by microorganisms
b.antibodies
also act as antibiotics but used in higher concentration
c.both
of these d.they are produced
by higher organism also
|
|
|
35
|
which
of the following is nicotinic derivative
a.isoniazid b.pyrazinamide c.ethionamide d.all of these
|
|
|
36
|
which
of the following is anthelmentic
a.a.pyrantel b.mebendazole c.both of these d.diloxanide
|
|
|
37
|
narrow
spectrum antibiotic
a.penicillin-g b.streptomycin c.erythromycin d.all of these
|
|
|
38
|
name
the drug which cause 8th cranial nerve toxicity
a.aminoglycoside b.tetracycline c.chloramphenicol d.penicillin
|
|
|
39
|
select
the high therapeutic drug group
i.penicillin ii.erytromycin iii.aminoglycoside iv.cephalosporin
choose
the correct group
a.i,ii,iii b.ii,iii,iv c.i,ii,iv d.i,iii,iv
|
|
|
40
|
very
low therapeutic index drugs
i.polymyxin
b ii.vancomycin iii.amphotericin b iv.penicillins
choose
the correct group
a.i,ii,iii b.ii,iii,iv c.iii,iv,i d.i,ii,iii,iv
|
|
|
41
|
select
the combination which does not exhibit supraadditive synergism
a.nalidixic
acid+nitrofurantoin
b.amoxicillin+clavulanic acid
c.pyrimethamine+sulfadoxine d.sulfamethoxazole+trimethoprim
|
a
|
|
42
|
currently
the drug of choice for emperic treatment
of typhoid fever is
a.chloramphenicol b.cotrimoxazole c.ciprofloxacin d.ampicillin
|
c
|
|
43
|
the
beta lactam antibiotics include the following
a.cephalosporin b.monobactams c.carbapenems d.all of these
|
d
|
|
44
|
characteristics
feature of penicillin-g is/are
a.it
is unstable in aq. solutiond
b.its
antibacterial action is unaffected by pus and tissue fluids
c.it
is equally active against resting and multiplying bacteria
d.both
a and b
|
d
|
|
45
|
the penicillin g preparation with the longest duration of action is:
a. benzathine
penicillin b. sodium
penicillin c. potassium penicillin
d. procaine penicillin
|
a
|
|
46
|
which of the following is not
a semisynthetic penicillin:
a. procaine
penicillin b. ampicillin c. cloxacillin d. carbenicillin
|
a
|
|
47
|
select the semisynthetic penicillin which is not acid resistant:
a. phenoxymethyl
penicillin b. ampicillin c.
carbenicillin d. cloxacillin
|
c
|
|
48
|
select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic:
a.
demeclocycline b. oxytetracycline c. minocycline d. doxycycline
|
c
|
|
49
|
the following tetracycline has the potential to cause vestibular
toxicity:
a.
minocycline b. demeclocycline c. doxycycline d. tetracycline
|
a
|
|
50
|
select the drug which directly inhibits hiv-reverse transcriptase
without the need for intracellular activation by phosphorylation:
a.
nelfinavir b. nevirapine c. stavudine d. didanosine
|
b
|
|
51
|
the antiviral action of amantadine is exerted through:
a. interaction
with the viral m2 protein
b. interaction
with a virus directed thymidinekinase
c. inhibition of
a viral protease enzyme
d. inhibition of
viral rna mediated dna synthesis
|
a
|
|
52
|
erythrocytic schizontocide antimalarial drugs are used as:
a. suppressive
prophylactic b. clinical curative
c. radical
curative for p.vivax
d. both ‘a’ and ‘b’
|
d
|
|
53
|
the following drug is a causal prophylactic for falciparum malaria
and suppressive prophylactic for vivax malaria:
a.
chloroquine b. mepacrine c. quinine d. proguanil
|
d
|
|
54
|
if a drug is active against the preerythrocytic stage
of the malarial parasite it will be useful as a:
a. suppressive
prophylactic b. causal prophylactic
c. clinical
curative d. radical curative
|
b
|
|
55
|
which of the following drugs is suitable for treatment of malaria
during pregnancy:
a. quinine b. chloroquine c. pyrimethamine d. primaquine
|
b
|
|
56
|
chloroquine is indicated in the following disorders except:
a. rheumatic
fever b. discoid lupus erythematosus
c. photogenic
skin reactions d. lepra
reaction
|
a
|
|
57
|
intravenous injection of quinine produces:
a. rise in blood
pressure b. neuromuscular block
c.
hyperglycaemia d.
hypoglycaemia
|
d
|
|
58
|
the most important risk in the use of primaquine is the occurrence of
the following reaction in certain recipients:
a. ventricular
arrhythmia b. agranulocytosis
c.
haemolysis d.
anaphylaxis
|
c
|
|
59
|
use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse
effect in subjects with g-6-pd deficiency:
a.
pyrimethamine b. artemisinin c. primaquine d. mefloquine
|
c
|
|
60
|
prolonged use of the following drug has been implicated in the
causation of subacute myelo-optic neuropathy (smon):
a. diloxanide
furoate b. iodochlorhydroxyquin c.
emetine d.furazolidone
|
b
|
|
61
|
the following antiamoebic drug should not be used in children because
of risk of causing blindness:
a.
quiniodochlor b. diloxanide
furoate c. tinidazole d. secnidazole
|
a
|
|
62
|
which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal:
a. rifampin b. isoniazid c. ethambutol d. pyrazinamide
|
c
|
|
63
|
ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because:
a. young children
are intolerant to ethambutol
b. ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children
c. it is
difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children
d. in young
children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible
|
c
|
|
64
|
the most important dose dependent toxicity of dapsone is:
a.
methemoglobinemia b. haemolysis c. hepatitis d. dermatitis
|
a
|
|
65
|
which antileprotic drug suppresses lepra reaction
and reversal reaction as well:
a. dapsone b. rifampin c. clofazimine d. minocycline
|
c
|
|
66
|
select the antifungal drug which is administered only by the oral
route:
a. amphotericin
b b. ketoconazole c. griseofulvin d. tolnaftate
|
c
|
Sunday 5 February 2017
CHEMOTHERAPY MCQS
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