Wednesday 8 March 2017

NIPER 2017: PRACTICE PAPER

1.      
Composition of Molisch reagent is
    a)      Alpha napthol + sulphuric acid
    b)     Beta napthol + sulphuric acid
    c)      Naphthylamine + sulphuric acid
    d)     Phenol + sulphuric acid
2.      
Chemical test used for identification of carbohydrates:
a)  Ninhydrin                   b)  Molisch
c)  Borntrager                 d)  Baljet
3.      
Important chemical constituent of Algin is:
a)  Tragacanthin b)  Bassorin
c)  Alginic acid   d)  Alginic ester
4.      
Important chemical constituent honey is:
   a)  Glucose                  b)  Fructose
   c)  Maltose                   d)  Invert sugar
5.      
Pectin is used in the pharmaceutical industries as:
a)  Adsorbent                 b)  Demulcent
c)  Emulsifying agent      d)  Suspending agent
6.      
Liquid glucose is obtained by:
   a)       Partial hydrolysis of glucose
   b)       Partial hydrolysis of starch
   c)       Complete hydrolysis of starch
   d)       Complete hydrolysis of glucose
7.      
The biological source for Indian gum is:
a)  Cyamopsis tetragonoglobules b)  Astragalus gamifer
c)  Acacia Arabica                       d)  Acacia Senegal
8.      
When Indian gum is treated with ruthenium red’ it shows:
   a)  Pink colour                          b)  Red colour
   c)  Blue                                   d)  No colour change
9.      
When Indian gum is treated with hydrogen peroxide and benzidine in alcohol; is shows blue colour due to:
a)  Hydrolyase enzyme                  b)  Oxidase enzyme
c)  Reductase enzyme                   d)  Invertase enzyme
10.   
The mostly used adulterant for Indian gum is:
a)     Acacia Senegal gum
b)     Gum from Astragalus gummifer
c)     Gum ghatti from anogeissus latifolia
d)     Guar gum
11.   
Synonym for Guar gum:
a)  Jaguar gum               b)  Acacia
c)  Gum acacia                d)  Gum Arabica
12.   
When guar gum is treated with about 2% solution of lead acetate; it shows:
a)  Pink colour                b)  Blue colour
c)  Yellow colour  d)  No colour change
13.   
Artificial invert sugar is an adulterant for honey and it is detected by the test:
a)  Tollen’s                      b)  Ninhydrine
c)  Baljet test                  d)  Fiehe’s test
14.   
The water soluble portion of tragacanth is known as:
a)  Tragacanthin              b)  Bassorin
c)  Galctouronic acid        d)  D-galctopyranose
15.   
Pectin is used in the treatment of:
a)  Ulcer                         b)  Hypertension
c)  Angina                                   d)  Diarrhoea
16.   
Biological source for Isapgol:
a)  Plantago ovata             b)  Aegle marmelos
c)  Giladinium amansii      d)  Condrus cripsus
17.   
Which test is used for the purity of Isapgol?
a)  Barfoed test               b)  Millon’s test
c)  Molisch test                d)  Swelling factor
18.   
When Isapgol is treated with rhuthenium red, it shows colour:
a)  Blue                          b)  Yellow
c)  Pink                          c)  Green
19.   
Isapgol seeds are adulterated with:
a)  Plantago purshii                      b)  Plantago lanciolata
c)  Plantago aristala                      d)  Plantago pysllium
20.   
Ager is used as:
a)  Binder                                   b)  Disintigrant
c)  Emulsifying agent        d)  Preservative
21.   
Amylum is the synonym for:
a)  Tragacanth                 b)  Starch
c)  Inulin                                    d)  Locust bean

22.   
Rice starch is of size:
a)  2-12 micron               b)  14-17 micron
c)  17-20 micron              d)  20-25 micron
23.   
Wheat starch is of size:
a)  0.1 to 1 micron                       b)  2 to 3 micron
c)  3 to 5 micron              d)  5 to 50 micron
24.   
The size of potato starch varies from:
a)  30 to 100 micron        b)  100 to 130 micron
c)  130 to 10 micron        d)  160 to 180 micron
25.   
Starch contains amylase and amylopectin in the proportion:
a)  1:2                           b)  1:1
c)  1:3                           d)  2:1
26.   
The test, which is not used for identification of carbohydrates:
a)  Molisch test                b)  Osazone formation test
c)  Ninhydrin test             d)  Resorcinol test
27.   
Keller kiliani test is used for identification of:
a)  Fructose                    b)  Maltose
c)  Deoxy sugar               d)  Glucose
28.   
The synonym of Lactose is:
a)  Milk sugar                 b)  Butter sugar
c)  Crystalline sugar         d)  Pure sugar
29.   
   Name                         Biological source
a) Carageennan    i) Acacia Arabica
b)Acacia ii) Chondrus crispus
c) Agar               iii) Gelidium amansii
d)Gum ghatti      iv) Anogeissus latifolia
A) a)  ii b) i. c) iii            d) iv     C) a)  iii b) i. c) ii            d) iv
B) a)  i b) ii. c) iv            d) iii     D) a)  iii b) iv. c) ii          d) i
30.   
 Carbohydrates  Biological source
a)  Tragacanth       i) Cyamopsis tetragonolobus
b)  Guar gum         i i) Astragulus gummifer
c)  Psyllium           iii) Plantago ovata
d)  Isapgol             iv) Plantago psyllium
A) a)  ii b) i. c) iii            d) iv     C) a)  iii b) i. c) ii d) iv
B) a)  i b) ii. c) iv            d) iii     D) a) ii b) i.c) iv d) iii
31.   
Name                Biological source
a) Honey                         i) Oryza sativa
b)Starch                         ii) Citrus limonis
c) Pectin                         iii) Apis species
d)Gum karaya     iv) Sterculia urens
A) a)  ii b) i. c) iii            d) iv     C) a) iii b) i. c) ii d) iv
B) a)  i b) ii. c) iv            d) iii     D) a) ii b) i.c) iv d) iii
32.   
   Starch                              Size
a)Rice                i)2 to 110 um
b)Potato               ii)2 to 45 um
c)Wheat             iii)2 to 10 um
d)Maize              iv)10 to 30 um
 A) a)  ii b) i. c) iii d) iv     C) a) i b) iii. c) ii          d) iv
  B) a) iii b) i. c) ii d) iv     D) a)  i b) ii. c) iii         d) iv    
33.   
      A             Source
a)Wheat                             i)Zea mays
b)Maize                   ii)Oryza sativum
c)Rice                    iii)Triticum sativum
d)Potato                 iv)solanum tuberosum
A) a) iii b) i. c) ii d) iv      C) a) ii b) iii. c) i            d) iv
  B) a) iii b) ii. c) i d) iv     D) a)  i b) ii. c) iii         d) iv    
34.   
The synonym for ‘Sesame oil’:
a)  Hydrocarbons oil                     b)  Margosa oil
c)  Maize oil                                d)  Gingally oil
35.   
In the patient with deficiency of vitamin A, which oil capsules you will suggest?
a)  Shark liver oil             b)  Mustard oil
c)  Arachis oil                              c)  Linseed oil
36.   
Which of the following oil is used as vehicle of oily injectables?
a)  Arachis oil                              b)  Linseed oil
c)  Castor oil                               d)  Jojoba oil
37.   
Oil is having antileprotic property:
a)  Linseed oil                             b)  Jojoba oil
c)  Chaulmoogra oil                      d)  Corn oil
38.   
The oil is not used as vehicle for the injectables:
a)  Arachis oil                              b)  Olive oil
c)  Sesame oil                              d)  Corn oil
39.   
Oil is showing laxative property:
a)  Arachis oil                              b)  Sesame oil
c)  Castor oil                               d)  Corn oil
40.   
Acid value is defined as:
a)   Number of milligram of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize one gram of fat or oil
b)   Number of gram of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize one gram of fat or oil
c)   Number of Kilogram of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize one gram of fat or oil
d)   Number of ml of potassium hydroxide (5N) required to neutralize one gram of fat or oil
41.   
The test not used as an analytical parameter for oil:
a)  Acetyl value               b)  Acid value
c)  Hydroxyl value                        d)  Ketone value
42.   
Which oil generally lowers the blood cholesterol level?
a)  Arachis oil                              b)  Castor oil
c)  Neem oil                                d)  Corn oil
43.   
Drug                             Source
a)  Seame oil                   i)  Hydrocarpus wightiana
b)  Chaulmoogra oil          ii)  Zea mays
c)  Corn oil                     iii)  Sesamum indicum
d)  Safflower oil               iv)  Carthmus tinctorius
A) a)  ii b) i. c) iii d) iv     C) a) i b) ii. c) iii           d) iv
  B) a) vi b) iii. c) ii d) i     D) a) iii b) I c) ii           d) iv
44.   
How many electrons does iron have?

a)             26

b)             30

c)             56
d)             It depends on the isotope of iron
45.   
Which of the following typically has a low melting point?

a)             metals
b)             nonmetals

c)             metalloids

d)             transition metals
46.   
Which of the following elements has three valence electrons?

a)             lithium

b)             boron

c)             nitrogen
d)             more than one of the above
47.   
Which element has the largest atomic radius?

a)     fluorine

b)     carbon

c)     tin
d)     iodine
48.   
The chemical name for Fe2O3 is:

a)             iron oxide

b)             iron (II) oxide

c)             iron (III) oxide
d)             iron (VI) oxide
49.   
What is the total number of lone pairs in carbon disulfide?

a.     two

b.     four

c.     eight
d.     twelve
50.   
What compound will most likely have the lowest melting and boiling point?

A.    aluminum trifluoride

B.    nitrogen trichloride

C.    fluorine
D.    hydrogen sulfide
51.   
Which of the following compounds is NOT polar?

a)             ammonia

b)             nitric acid

c)             methane
d)             none of these
52.   
Hexane and 3-methylpentane are examples of:
A)     enantiomers.
B)     stereoisomers.
C)     diastereomers.
D)    constitutional isomers.
53.   
         Z and X are:

CH2CH3      CH2Cl
H3CCl       HH
H               CH2CH3
Z               X

A)     constitutional isomers.
B)     enantiomers.

C)     non-superposable mirror images.
D)    diastereomers.
54.   
Which of the following molecules is achiral?
A)     (2R,3R)-2,3-Dichloropentane
B)     (2R,3S)-2,3-Dichloropentane
C)     (2S,4S)-2,4-Dichloropentane
D)    (2S,4R)-2,4-Dichloropentane
55.   
Which one of the following can exist in optically active forms?
A)     cis-1,3-Dichlorocyclohexane
B)     trans-1,3-Dichlorocyclohexane
C)     cis-1,4-Dichlorocyclohexane
D)    trans-1,4-Dichlorocyclohexane
56.   
Which of the following is true of any (S)-enantiomer?
A)     It rotates plane-polarized light to the right.
B)     It rotates plane-polarized light to the left.
C)     It is a racemic form.
D)    It is the mirror image of the corresponding (R)-enantiomer.
57.   
CH3CHBrCH2CHClCH3 is the generalized representation of what number of stereoisomers?
A)     3
B)     4
C)     5
D)    6
58.   
What is the molecular formula for the alkane of smallest molecular weight which possesses a stereogenic center?
A)                   A)    C4H10
B)     C5H12
C)     C6H14
D)    C7H16
59.   
 Which is a meso compound?
A)   (2R,3R)-2,3-Dibromobutane
B)   (2R,3S)-2,3-Dibromopentane
C)   (2R,4R)-2,4-Dibromopentane
D)   (2R,4S)-2,4-Dibromopentane
60.   
Hybridization state of free radical of CH3
A) SPB) SP2  C)  SP   D)  none
61.   
 Stereoisomer which are not mirror image of each other called?
A)     enantiomers.
B)     stereoisomers.
C)     diastereomers.
D)    constitutional isomers
62.   
How much % ( amount) of oxygen is present in 12% hydrogen peroxide?
a) 20 b) 40 c) 60 d) 100
63.   
Stereoselective synthesis also known as
A) asymmetric synthesis B) symmetric synthesis C) Stereo specific synthesis D) None
64.   
All are Methods of Resolution except-
A)Conversion to Diastereomers                      B) Biochemical Processes
C) Kinetic Resolution                                      D)Molecular Mechanics
65.   
Nonequivalency of bonds is known
A) partial bond fixation B) double bond fixation C) Aromaticity D)None
66.   
The first edition of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP) was published:
a) 1950                          b)  1955
c)  1966                         d)  1985
67.   
Non-official compendia:
a)  Martindale                              b)  British Pharmaceutical Codex
c) National Formulary                   d)  Indian Pharmacopoeia
68.   
Which amongst  the following is not an ex-officio member of  the PCI?
a)  Director General Of Health services                              
b)  Director Of Central Drugs Laboratory
c)  Drugs Controllers Of India       
d)  Chairman,AICTE
69.   
The requirements  and guidelines for clinical trials  , import and manufacture of the new  drugs  as per the Drugs and Cosmetic  rules is given under schedule :
a) A                               b)  Y
c)  B                              d)  N
70.   
Dispensing by unregistered person is punishable with imprisonment upto…. With fine or both:
a) 1 year,1000Rs/-          b)  6months, 1000Rs/-
c) 1 year, 500Rs/-                       d) 6months,  500Rs/-

71.   
AS per schedule O of the drugs and Cocmetics Rules 1945, the minum Rideal Walker Coefficients for Grade 1 , Grade 2and Grade 3 Black disinfectant fluids are:
a) 18,10,5                          b)  10,12,14
c)  5,6,7                         d)  14,12,16
72.   
Number of animals for long term toxicity studies are prescribed in appendices:
a) I                                b)  II
c)  III                             d)  IV
73.   
Every year the register of state pharmacy council is required to print the registers
a) 1st January                b)  1st may
c)  1st april                        d)  1st march
74.   
Vaccine and sera comes under act:
a) Schedule G     b)  Schedule H
c)  Schedule X               d)  Schedule C
75.   
Intra-uterine devices and Falope rings testing shall be carried out at Central Drug  testing Laboratory in
a) Thane                           b)  Kasuali
c)  Noida                             d)  None
76.   
In respect of drugs imported by sea into India:
a) Chennai                        b)  Kolkata
c)  Cochin                        d)  All of above
77.   
A white  colored label shall be put on  bag containing blood with blood group:
a) o                     b)  AB
c) A                       d)  B
78.   
The production area and the viral inactivation room shall be centrally air conditioned and fitted with HEPA filters having class:
a) Class 10,000                 b)  Class 100
c) Class 1000                          d)  None
79.   
For Aseptic processing which of the following is used:
(A) Class 10                    (B) Class 100
(C) Class 10000               (D) Class 100000
80.   
National Institute of Virology is situated at:
a) Thane                           b)  Delhi
c)  Pune                             d)  None
81.   
Ranaghat, Bongaon and Mohiassan Railways Stations: In respect of drugs imported by rail across the frontier with:
a) China                           b)  Nepal
c)  Pakistan                     d)  Bangladesh
82.   
Diseases which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure:
a)Schedule G      b)  Schedule J
c)  Schedule X               d)  Schedule P
83.   
The functions of the Laboratory in respect of the following  Anti-sera, Vaccines, Toxoids, Diagnostic Antigens for veterinary use  shall be carried out at
a) Izatnagar                       b)  Kasuali
c) Mukteshwar                 d)  Both a,c
84.   
DTAB is constituted by ….and consists of members………….
a) Central Govt. ,18 members                    b)  State Govt., 18 members
c)  Central Govt., 16 members                      d) State  Govt., 16 members
85.   
One medical officer opinion is suffice for MTP upto __ wks of pregnancy?
a)8wks                    b)10wks
c)12wks                    d)20wks
86.   
The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act does not protect act of termination of pregnancies after:
A.  20 weeks           B.  24 weeks
 C.  28 weeks          D.  30 weeks
87.   
True about the given statements
a)     R.P. = (M.C. + C.C. + P.M. + P.C.) x (1 + MAPE/100) + ED
b)     Drug  Includes bulk drugs and formulations
c)     "Form" means a form specified in the Second Schedule
d)     ceiling price means a price fixed by the Government for Scheduled formulations in accordance with the provisions of paragraph 9.
A.  a not b        B.  Not a,b,c,d
C.  b  not a,c       D.  All of above
88.   
Magic remedies act was passed in year
A.  1945        B.  1930
 C.  1920        D.  1954
89.   
Cannnabis sativa yields:
A.  Opium           B.  Hemp
 C.  Morphine         D.  Codeine
90.   
If a drug contains a colour which is not prescribed is called:
A.  Misbranded          B.  Adulterated
 C.  superious             D.  None

91.   
For repackaging of drugs  specified in schedule C an C1 license is granted in form:
A.  20B            B.  20 D
 C.  25 B          D.  32
92.   
Contravention of secrecy provisions relating to certain inventions leas to penalty according to Patent act
A.  Imprisonment upto 2 years or fine or both
 B.  Imprisonment upto 3 years or fine or both
C.  Imprisonment upto 5 years or fine or both       
D.  Imprisonment upto 4years or fine or both
93.   
The Narcotic Drugs an Psychotropic Substances Acts was enacted in the year
a.1965       b.1985
c.1970       d.1990
94.   
How many schedules are there in the Drugs (Prices Control) Order?
a.     One
b.     Two
c.     Three
d.     Four
95.   
Which of the following narcotic drugs has been approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of narcotic addiction?
(A) Morphine
(B) Codeine
(C) Methadone
(D) Hydrocodone
(E) None of the above
96.   
Coca derivative means
(a) crude cocaine, that is, any extract of coca leaf which can be used, directly or indirectly, for the manufacture of cocaine
 (b) ecgonine and all the derivatives of ecgonine from which it can be recovered
 (c) cocaine, that is, methyl ester of benzoyl-ecgonine and its salts
 (d) all preparations containing more than 0.1 percent of cocaine
(e) all above
97.   
For registration of pharmacist in the various states, the pharmacy act provides for The constitution of
a) Registration of tribunals
b) Registration of corporative Societies
c) Registrar of central pharmacy council
d) Registrar of state pharmacy council
98.   
Which form used to issue license for wholesale of drugs other than specified in Schedule C & C1
a) 20 B             b) 20 BB
c) 21B                d) 20 A
99.   
Which one license issue form for manufacture of drugs specified in schedule C, C1 and X
a) 27 B     b) 28 B
c) 25 F      d) 28
100.                 
Poisonous drugs are included under the
a) Schedule E       b) Schedule FF
c) Schedule O      d) Schedule X
101.                 
An original or renewed license to sell drugs remains valid upto
a) 31st March next year in which it is granted
b) 30th June of the following year in which it is granted or renewed c)31st January of the same year in which it is granted
d) 31st December of the same year in which it is granted or renewed
102.                 
How much number nominated by central Govt. in PCI Constitution
     a) 4                      b) 5
       c) 6                        d) 7
103.                 
Drug  (According to Drug and Magic remedies act)includes-
a)             a medicine for the internal or external use of human beings or animals;
b)              any substance intended to be used for or in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in human beings or animals
c)             any article, other than food, intended to affect or influence in any way the structure or any organic function of the body of human beings or animals;
d)             any article intended for use as a component of any medicine, substance or article, referred to in sub-clauses (i), (ii) and (iii);
e)             All of above
104.                 
Which of the following advertisements is prohibited under Drug and Magic remedies act
a)     the procurement of miscarriage in women or prevention of conception in women;
b)     the maintenance or improvement of the capacity of human beings for sexual pleasure;
c)     the correction of menstrual disorder in women
d)     All of above

105.                 
The drug of choice in benzodiazopene poisoning is
A) picrotoxin                 b) flumazenil              c) naloxone                  d) gabapentin
106.                 
identify the drug blocking gaba receptor
A) gabapentin                b) picrotoxin               c) flumazenil               d) both b & c
107.                 
Disulfiram is the drug used to stop alcohol habit. It act by inhibiting
A) alcohol dehydrogenase  b) aldehyde dehydrogense   c) both      d) acid dehydrogenase
108.                 
An only local anesthetic causing vasoconstriction is
A) procaine                      b) benzocaine                   c) bupivacaine                d) cocaine
109.                 
Match the following
1.     Mania (bipolar)                                                       a Lithium
2.     Bed wetting treatment                                          b. Disulfiram & propanolol
3.     Alcohol withdrawl                                                   c. Imipramine
Lithium ions
a) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b                                                         b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
C) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b                                                        d) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
110.                 
GABA agonist acts by increasing
A) hyperpolarisation      b) depolarization  c) hypopolarisation          d) repolarisation
111.                 
Hyperpolarisation is
a) chloride inc, pot dec  b) chloride dec, pot inc    c) both increased  d) both decreased
112.                 
which drug does not show albumin protein binding
a.barbiturates      b.lignocaine         c.nsaids           d.tolbutamide
113.                 
Which Is Not A Positive Symptom Associated With Schizophernia
a.hallucination     b.anhedonia       c.delusion      d. disorganised thoughts
114.                 
Which Is Used In Methanol Poisoning
a. disulfiram      b.barbiturate       c.benzodiazepine       d.fomepizole
115.                 
 Rabbit Syndrome Is Adverse Effect Of
a.typical antipsychotic drugs, antiparkinsonian agents
b.atypical antipsychotic drugs, antiparkinsonian agents
c.typical antipsychotics only
d atypical antipsychotics only
116.                 
Extrapyramidal Side Effect Is  Major Adverse Effect Of
a.atypical antipsychotics    b.typical antipsychotics    c.both     d.none
117.                 
Weight Gain Is Caused By Which Antipsychotic  Category Drugs
a.atypical antipsychotic    b.typical antip     c.both        d.none
118.                 
amenorrhoea ,galactorrhoea and gynaecomastia are adverse effect of
a.atypical antipsychotics    b.typical antipsychotics    c.both    d.parkinsonian agents
119.                 
Drug Used In Mania
a.lithium    b.valproate     c.atypical antipsychoyics       d all
120.                 
cannabinoids are used as hallucinogens and tetrahydrocannabinol is active constituent of ‘cannabis indica’. now match the source of following
a bhang       1. dried female inflorescence
b.ganja         2 dried leaves
c.charas       3.dried resinous extract from flowering tops and leaves
select correct
A.    a-1,b-2,c-3
B.    a-2,b-1,c-3
C.    a-1,b-3,c-2
D.    a-2,b-3,c-1
121.                 
which of the following is ultra short acting barbiturate
a.methohexitone     b.thiopentone      c.pentobarbitone        d. a and b
122.                 
dopaminergic overactivity in limbic system is related with
a.parkinsonism    b.schozophernia    c.depression      c.all of these
123.                 
methanol poisionig cause retinal damage(blindness)  which is caused by
a.methanol    b.formaldehyde      c.formic acid      d.all of these
124.                 
which of the  following is not a atypical antipsychotics
a.risperidone     b.fluphenazine     c.olanzapine       d.aripiprazole
125.                 
Which of the following is not true about Indian gum (gum acacia)
a. it should not contain more than 15% moisture
b. it is aduldetated with GUM GHATTI
C. Shape is ovoid tear shape
D.it should contain tannin  and starch
126.                 
Guar gum
a.     it is obtained from endosperm of seeds of cyamopsis tetragonolobus
b.     it is obtained from endosperm of seeds of camellia sinesis
c.     it is obtained from endosperm of fruit of camellia sinesis
d.     it is obtained from endosperm of fruit  of cyamopsis tetragonolobus
127.                 
Select true statement
a.     tragacanth have ribbon like appearance
b.     gum acacia have ovoid tear shape appearance
c.     gum karaya (sterculia gum) give pink colour with ruthenium red but  gum acacia and tragacanth (astragalus gummifer) does not show pink colour.
d.     all of these
128.                 
Select wrong
a.Ricinoleic acid is responsible for viscosity in castor oil
b.Agaropectin is responsible for viscosity of agar
c.Guar gum induce hyperglycaemia in human
d.artificial invert sugar which is an adulterant of honey detected by Fiehes test
129.                 
Rancidified oil is detected by
a.high iodine value
b. low iodine value
c.high acid value
d. low acid value
130.                 
Iodine value give us the measure of
a.     unsaturation of oil
b.     rancidity of oil
c.     both of these
d.     none
131.                 
Which Excitatory Neurotransmitter Producing Pain In Spinal Cord
a.NMDA       b.glutamate         c.substance p          d. glycine
132.                 
Competitive Antagonist At Bzd Site
a.muscimol      b.bicuculline       c.flumazenil      d.beta carboline
133.                 
Total no of isomers present in cholesterol
A) 6  B) 16   C) 32  D) 64
134.                 
EWG increase the activity of BZDs at position no
A) 5  B)  1   C)  7   D)  8
135.                 
Which of the following is non reducing sugar
a.lactose   b. sucrose     c. maltose     d. monosaccharides
136.                 
Select muscle relaxant
a. d-tubocurarine    b.dantrolene     c.diazepam      d.all of these
137.                 
Which of the following is a neuromuscular blocking agent
a. d-tubocurarine    b.dantrolene     c.diazepam      d.all of these
138.                 
Select short acting neuromuscular blocking agent
a. mivacurium       b.atracurium      c.pancuronium     d.vecuronium
139.                 
Select long  acting neuromuscular blocking agent
a. mivacurium       b.atracurium      c.pancuronium     d.vecuronium
140.                 
Which of the following is not  true about Dantrolene
a. skeletal muscle relaxant     b. neuromuscular blocking agent
c.act on Ryanodine receptor          d.drug of choice in malignant hyperthermia
141.                 
Select the neuromuscular blocking agent used in hepatic, renal, neonate and elderly  patients
          a.D-tubocurarine     b.atracurium       c.pipecuronium        d.all of these
142.                 
Enantiomorphs have
   A) Identical physical and chemical properties
   B) diff. physical and chemical properties
   C) same physical and diff chemical properties
   D) both A) & C)
143.                 
In central insecticides board all are ex officio members except
A) Director general of health sciences
B) Joint Director traffic, ministry of railways
C) Pharmacologist
D) The industrial advisor (chemicals)
144.                 
According to the factories act, adolescent means
A) a person who has completed his 18 years of age
B) a person who has completed his 15 years of age
C)a person who has completed his 15 years but not completed 18 years of his age
D) None of above
145.                 
The principles involved in the conformational analysis of six-membered rings
Containing minimum
A) one or two trigonal atoms B) three trigonal atoms C) four trigonal atoms D) none of above
146.                 
If a pure compound is optically active, the molecule is
A) Nonsuperimposable on its mirror image
 B) Superimposable on its mirror image
C) None of above
147.                 
Which of the following is example of fat
A) palm oil    b. olive oil      c. sesame oil    d. linseed oil
148.                 
Select short acting Local anaesthetics
a.cocaine     b. procaine      c.Prilocaine     d.Lidocaine
149.                 
Main component of astragalus gummifer (tragacanth) is
a.bassorin   b. tragacanthin         c. algin      d. inulin


150.                 
In drug and cosmetic act and rules , according to prescribed appendix stated  “ format for submission of clinical trial reports” comes under
A) appendix I
B) appendix II
C) appendix III
D) appendix IV

ANSWER KEY:

1.      
A
2.      
B
3.      
C
4.      
D
5.      
A
6.      
B
7.      
C
8.      
D
9.      
B
10.   
C
11.   
A
12.   
D
13.   
D
14.   
A
15.   
D
16.   
A
17.   
D
18.   
C
19.   
B
20.   
C
21.   
B
22.   
A
23.   
D
24.   
A
25.   
A
26.   
C
27.   
C
28.   
A
29.   
A
30.   
D
31.   
C
32.   
B
33.   
A
34.   
D
35.   
A
36.   
A
37.   
C
38.   
D
39.   
C
40.   
A
41.   
D
42.   
D
43.   
D
44.   
A
45.   
B
46.   
B
47.   
C
48.   
C
49.   
B
50.   
C
51.   
C
52.   
D
53.   
A
54.   
D
55.   
B
56.   
D
57.   
B
58.   
D
59.   
D
60.   
A
61.   
C
62.   
B
63.   
A
64.   
D
65.   
A
66.   
B
67.   
A
68.   
D
69.   
B
70.   
B
71.   
A
72.   
D
73.   
C
74.   
D
75.   
A
76.   
D
77.   
B
78.   
A
79.   
B
80.   
C
81.   
D
82.   
B
83.   
D
84.   
A
85.   
C
86.   
A
87.   
D
88.   
B
89.   
C
90.   
A
91.   
C
92.   
A
93.   
B.
94.   
C
95.   
C
96.   
E
97.   
D
98.   
A
99.   
B
100.                 
A
101.                 
D
102.                 
C
103.                 
E
104.                 
D
105.                 
B
106.                 
D
107.                 
B
108.                 
D
109.                 
C
110.                 
A
111.                 
A
112.                 
B
113.                 
B
114.                 
D
115.                 
C
116.                 
B
117.                 
A
118.                 
B
119.                 
D
120.                 
B
121.                 
D
122.                 
B
123.                 
C
124.                 
B
125.                 
D
126.                 
A
127.                 
D
128.                 
C
129.                 
C
130.                 
A
131.                 
D
132.                 
C
133.                 
D
134.                 
C
135.                 
B
136.                 
D
137.                 
A
138.                 
A
139.                 
C
140.                 
B
141.                 
B
142.                 
A
143.                 
C
144.                 
C
145.                 
A
146.                 
A
147.                 
A
148.                 
B
149.                 
A
150.                 
B



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